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Qmechanic
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JamalS
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Why is the momentum state of a particle in quantum mechanics given by the Fourier-Transformation transform of its position state? For instance, in one dimension given by

$$\varphi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int dx e^{-i p x/\hbar} \psi(x)$$$$\varphi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int \mathrm dx \, e^{-i p x/\hbar} \psi(x).$$

Why is the momentum state of a particle in quantum mechanics given by the Fourier-Transformation of its position state? For instance, in one dimension by

$$\varphi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int dx e^{-i p x/\hbar} \psi(x)$$

Why is the momentum state of a particle in quantum mechanics given by the Fourier transform of its position state? For instance, in one dimension given by

$$\varphi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int \mathrm dx \, e^{-i p x/\hbar} \psi(x).$$

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user56224
user56224

Momentum state of a particle

Why is the momentum state of a particle in quantum mechanics given by the Fourier-Transformation of its position state? For instance, in one dimension by

$$\varphi(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}\int dx e^{-i p x/\hbar} \psi(x)$$