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Dec 16, 2016 at 20:21 comment added Eric O I realize that the question is more about semantics and/or epistemology than physics. Since asking the question, I have learned a lot about the "arrow of time" and apparently most of physics is time-direction-invariant (negative time works symmetrically) with the exception of the second "law" of thermodynamics (although I wonder, since there is an implicit time basis to the act of proceeding from order to disorder, if it is a circular argument that assumes positive time). My question is about whether the notion of cause and effect is invariant.
Dec 16, 2016 at 6:50 answer added Bob Bee timeline score: 3
Dec 16, 2016 at 0:53 answer added Szymon timeline score: 0
Dec 15, 2016 at 23:56 answer added sintetico timeline score: 0
Dec 15, 2016 at 23:18 comment added Eric O Yes I think Loschmidt's Paradox applies, if I understand it to mean that if time ran in the negative direction, it would be, mirror-like, imperceptible (indiscernible?) to inhabitants of that universe. So it may require an external observer in a "time-positive" universe to notice. It is obviously just a thought experiment about observation.
Dec 15, 2016 at 23:02 comment added ACuriousMind What, exactly, does "time runs backwards" mean here? Are you trying to pose a Loschmidt's paradox-like scenario?
S Dec 15, 2016 at 22:35 history suggested sintetico
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Dec 15, 2016 at 22:25 review Suggested edits
S Dec 15, 2016 at 22:35
Dec 15, 2016 at 22:24 comment added sintetico Well it is an interesting question and I think the answer is not that straightforward. This is related with the thermodynamical arrow of time. However, if one considers only reversible processes or few particle physics (that is, in any case one can forget about the 2nd principle) the answer is definitely yes, the cause and effect is preserved.
Dec 15, 2016 at 22:14 review First posts
Dec 15, 2016 at 22:32
Dec 15, 2016 at 22:12 history asked Eric O CC BY-SA 3.0