Timeline for How can a neutrino have same spin as an electron?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 1, 2016 at 13:39 | comment | added | Andrey Feldman | @ben Yes, it can be. | |
| Dec 1, 2016 at 13:37 | comment | added | user137874 | I meant $\hbar$/ 2 * 10^10 | |
| Dec 1, 2016 at 13:34 | comment | added | Andrey Feldman | @ben Remember one simple fact -- $\hbar = \frac{h}{2\pi}=1$. Thus spin is a multiple of $\frac{1}{2}$. $10^{-10}$ is not a multiple of $\frac{1}{2}$. | |
| Dec 1, 2016 at 13:24 | comment | added | Andrey Feldman | @tvb I can just repeat that the particle spin is fixed to be a multiple of $\frac{1}{2}$ due to elementary mathematical reasons. Is it surprising that $\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{2}$? | |
| Dec 1, 2016 at 13:20 | comment | added | AccidentalFourierTransform | Spin is not unrelated to mass: massless particles can only have two polarisations, while massive ones can have $2j+1$. Once we declare the particle to be massive, its actual mass becomes irrelevant to study its spin. | |
| Dec 1, 2016 at 13:16 | comment | added | user134483 | isn't it considered odd/ puzzling at all the fact that they have same magnitude of spin? Does the fact that the value is exactly the same suggest a particular reason why spin should be $\hbar$/4$\pi$? Am I the only one to be surprised? | |
| Dec 1, 2016 at 13:10 | history | answered | Andrey Feldman | CC BY-SA 3.0 |