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Nov 27, 2016 at 21:02 comment added rsaavedra Of course! I don't know how I forgot considering that, the actual definition of an operator transformation is that $<\psi^{\prime}|\tilde{\boldsymbol{P}}|\psi^{\prime}>=<\psi|\boldsymbol{P}|\psi> $. So it is true that the action on a state ket must be considered. Using that fact I obtain a slightly different result from yours, with a minus sign in the transformation, as proposed by the problem.
Nov 27, 2016 at 20:28 history answered Christophe CC BY-SA 3.0