Timeline for Why is the damping force proportional to $v$ and not $v^2$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Nov 21, 2016 at 0:33 | history | edited | Kyle Kanos | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
repaired error according to Ben
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Nov 21, 2016 at 0:01 | comment | added | user4552 | For the harmonic oscillator, we expect slow speeds and no turbulence so we can use the Stokes' limit This is nonsense. Damped oscillations are an extremely broad paradigm, which can be applied to many different and very dissimilar physical systems. | |
Nov 20, 2016 at 21:34 | vote | accept | Georg | ||
Nov 20, 2016 at 21:34 | |||||
Nov 20, 2016 at 21:33 | vote | accept | Georg | ||
Nov 20, 2016 at 21:34 | |||||
Nov 20, 2016 at 21:20 | comment | added | Kyle Kanos | @hyportnex: The second link does, correct. The first link gives a further link (here) which derives the linear form from the NS equations. | |
Nov 20, 2016 at 21:15 | comment | added | hyportnex | the wikipedia article you have referenced uses the Buckingham $\Pi$ theorem to prove that the drag force should be proportional to $v^2 f_c(Re)$ where $Re = \frac {v \sqrt{A}}{\nu}$, so then one must have $f_c(x) \approx \frac{1}{x}$ for small x | |
Nov 20, 2016 at 21:04 | history | edited | Kyle Kanos | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added Prandtl form as well
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Nov 20, 2016 at 20:53 | history | answered | Kyle Kanos | CC BY-SA 3.0 |