Timeline for How do I know how many classical limits (if any) a given quantum theory is going to have?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Mar 6, 2019 at 7:41 | comment | added | user87745 | [...] Also, I don't see why he seemed to expect that the classical limit should correspond to a large number of particles in a single state. In my understanding, for example, in Bosons, the classical limit simply corresponds to $\hbar\to0$ and I don't see how that relates to a large number of particles in a single state. If you can suggest a review-type resource for all these related issues then it would be even fantastic. Apologies for the naivety of the questions. Thanks! :) | |
Mar 6, 2019 at 7:41 | comment | added | user87745 | My professor recently remarked that it is expected that Fermionic theories don't admit a classical limit because we simply can't put more than one particles in the same state and the classical limit is experimentally realized when we have a large number of particles in a single state. Could you comment on this argument? [...] | |
Apr 29, 2018 at 16:56 | comment | added | ZeroTheHero | In the Wigner-function approach to QM (which is semi-classical in nature as it retains some non-classical correlations) the semi-classical limit of spin systems is reached when $1/S\to 0$ since, in this limit, the Moyal bracket collapses to the (classical) Poisson bracket on the sphere. See for instance Sec. 2.4 of iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1751-8121/50/32/323001/meta | |
Aug 29, 2016 at 13:41 | vote | accept | Bruce Lee | ||
Aug 29, 2016 at 9:17 | history | answered | yuggib | CC BY-SA 3.0 |