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S Mar 31, 2015 at 17:26 history suggested calavicci CC BY-SA 3.0
Dirac delta is the derivative of the step function, not the other way around, although the poster did both intend and use the correct thing
Mar 31, 2015 at 17:07 review Suggested edits
S Mar 31, 2015 at 17:26
Jul 22, 2014 at 10:12 history edited Tobias Kienzler CC BY-SA 3.0
improved formula typesetting
Apr 21, 2012 at 13:30 comment added Jaivir Baweja @Greg Graviton This is correct because its the analytic imaginary time continuation, and the look of that function is familiar in quantum field theory, which also makes performing this procedure much easier. The Fourier transform is a required step even though it makes the calculations tedious (the question asked for a method without it). Also, you need to integrate the result you obtained from negative pi to pi to get the result of my answer, if you haven't done so already.
Apr 21, 2012 at 13:22 comment added Jaivir Baweja @Greg Graviton This is correct because its the analytic imaginary time continuation, and the look of that function is familiar in quantum field theory, which also makes performing this procedure much easier.
Apr 21, 2012 at 8:34 comment added Greg Graviton Could you elaborate? Performing the Fourier transform and the reverse again, I get that the analytic continuation $iτ \to t + i\eta$ gives $θ(τ) \to iθ(t)e^{-\eta t}$. Is that correct?
Apr 20, 2012 at 20:01 history answered Jaivir Baweja CC BY-SA 3.0