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Oct 17, 2020 at 15:39 answer added Souparna Nath timeline score: 7
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Aug 14, 2016 at 20:30 vote accept connorp
Aug 14, 2016 at 17:32 answer added Javier timeline score: 7
Aug 14, 2016 at 16:42 comment added connorp @Javier Could you explain why exactly the derivative is unaffected? I'm not very familiar with spinor space. Thanks.
Aug 14, 2016 at 10:48 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 14, 2016 at 10:39 answer added Qmechanic timeline score: 5
Aug 13, 2016 at 23:02 comment added Javier Depends on the space. If you're taking adjoints in $L^2$, then yes, it's anti-Hermitian. But here you're taking adjoints in spinor space (that is, transposing and conjugating spinors and matrices), so the derivative is unaffected.
Aug 13, 2016 at 22:42 history asked connorp CC BY-SA 3.0