Timeline for What is the physical meaning of Lorenz gauge condition? [closed]
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
15 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Sep 2, 2018 at 13:50 | vote | accept | grodta | ||
Jul 21, 2016 at 12:55 | vote | accept | grodta | ||
Sep 2, 2018 at 13:50 | |||||
Jul 18, 2016 at 2:17 | vote | accept | grodta | ||
Jul 21, 2016 at 12:55 | |||||
Jul 18, 2016 at 2:17 | vote | accept | grodta | ||
Jul 18, 2016 at 2:17 | |||||
Jul 16, 2016 at 9:35 | history | closed |
rob♦ Diracology Gert knzhou ACuriousMind♦ |
Needs details or clarity | |
Jul 16, 2016 at 9:06 | comment | added | Vladimir Kalitvianski | There is none. There only is a technical convenience of using it in some problems. In terms of potentials there is no "gauge invariant core" and additional "purely gauge terms" to throw away. | |
Jul 16, 2016 at 8:12 | answer | added | Selene Routley | timeline score: 14 | |
Jul 16, 2016 at 2:24 | answer | added | Timaeus | timeline score: 5 | |
Jul 15, 2016 at 22:23 | comment | added | Bob Bee | The question should be when and for what purposes is it more useful to use this gauge condition other than another, such as under what conditions does it give you calculational advantages or makes it easier to interpret results? | |
Jul 15, 2016 at 21:54 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | The very definition of a gauge condition is that it is physically as "good" and as "bad" as any other, that is, the choice of gauge condition does not impact the observable physics at all. Why do you think it has a "physical meaning"? | |
Jul 15, 2016 at 21:48 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jul 15, 2016 at 21:46 | review | Close votes | |||
Jul 16, 2016 at 9:35 | |||||
Jul 15, 2016 at 20:29 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 59 characters in body; edited tags
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Jul 15, 2016 at 20:28 | review | First posts | |||
Jul 15, 2016 at 21:31 | |||||
Jul 15, 2016 at 20:25 | history | asked | grodta | CC BY-SA 3.0 |