Timeline for Why is the spacelike conserved charge due to spacetime translations the momentum?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Aug 13, 2021 at 22:01 | vote | accept | Kenneth Goodenough | ||
| Jul 26, 2019 at 20:34 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
edited tags
|
|
| Jul 26, 2019 at 18:01 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
| Feb 10, 2017 at 8:29 | answer | added | tparker | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jul 15, 2016 at 14:28 | comment | added | Kenneth Goodenough | @ACuriousMind, I already suspected that that should be the case (see the last sentence of my question), but I was hoping there might be a way to see it from a different angle as well. The textbook I'm using said '$P^k = \int\mathrm{d}^3x\pi(x) \partial^k\phi(x)$, which we recognice as the momentum'. From this sentence, I was expecting that there was something to recognize from the formula itself, but alas. | |
| Jul 15, 2016 at 14:17 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | Why would you expect that $\int \pi(x)$ is the momentum? What even is your definition of momentum that there is something to "see" here? My definition of "physical momentum" for Lagrangian/Hamiltonian mechanics is that it is the charge of spatial translation. | |
| Jul 15, 2016 at 14:03 | comment | added | Javier | Just a comment: $\pi$ is canonical momentum, not "physical" momentum. | |
| Jul 15, 2016 at 14:00 | history | asked | Kenneth Goodenough | CC BY-SA 3.0 |