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Jun 10, 2016 at 21:52 vote accept Kamil
Jun 10, 2016 at 21:08 answer added philip_0008 timeline score: 5
Jun 10, 2016 at 21:07 comment added Kamil I see. But how did you deduce that?
Jun 10, 2016 at 21:00 history edited Qmechanic
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Jun 10, 2016 at 20:56 comment added philip_0008 Still the same. Only that $E_n = \frac{\hbar^2n^2\pi^2} {2mL^2} + V_0$
Jun 10, 2016 at 18:58 history asked Kamil CC BY-SA 3.0