Timeline for Where does $\hat{P}\psi(x) = -i\hbar \partial_x \psi(x)$ come from?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 24, 2016 at 15:56 | vote | accept | nougako | ||
| May 24, 2016 at 15:14 | answer | added | Lewis Miller | timeline score: 1 | |
| May 24, 2016 at 12:06 | comment | added | snulty | @nougako I think out of nowhere is a bit harsh. I believe schrodinger was initially motivated to form his wave equation by de broglie's particle wave ideas, hence he considered plane waves and postulated that the ideas generalise. Heisenberg on the other hand was thinking of matrices, I think because some of the equations he was working with looked like matrix multiplication. If you have matrices, and you want to check if they commute, you look at commutators, and $i\hbar$ was consistent for $x$ and $p$. -Add Sources | |
| May 24, 2016 at 11:03 | answer | added | drvrm | timeline score: -1 | |
| May 24, 2016 at 10:35 | history | protected | Qmechanic♦ | ||
| May 24, 2016 at 10:27 | answer | added | valerio | timeline score: 2 | |
| May 24, 2016 at 9:11 | answer | added | Max Lein | timeline score: 0 | |
| May 24, 2016 at 8:27 | comment | added | nougako | Some of the answers there brought up the commutator between x and p. But as knzhou explained below, this commutator was also actually postulated out of nowhere. I have reservation for this, I would like to know why they postulated that commutator. | |
| May 24, 2016 at 8:05 | comment | added | Qmechanic♦ | More on momentum operator in QM. | |
| May 24, 2016 at 8:00 | answer | added | knzhou | timeline score: 6 | |
| May 24, 2016 at 7:57 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 2 characters in body; edited tags
|
| May 24, 2016 at 7:49 | history | asked | nougako | CC BY-SA 3.0 |