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Apr 29, 2016 at 3:07 vote accept biryani
Apr 28, 2016 at 18:52 comment added udrv Technically, since $\rho_eq$ commutes with the Hamiltonian $H$, it is a time-independent solution of the Liouville-von Neumann eq. in the absence of interactions, that is, ${\dot \rho_eq} = 0$. Thermal equilibrium with the surroundings corresponds to the limit of vanishing interactions with the surroundings, so yes, you are correct. But it applies to an isolated system too.
Apr 28, 2016 at 9:32 answer added Mark Mitchison timeline score: 7
Apr 28, 2016 at 6:34 comment added biryani Thanks. If I understand you correctly then the second definition defines the state of the system that is in equilibrium with its surrounding. (Which I assume is at a temperature $1/k \beta$).
Apr 28, 2016 at 6:28 comment added udrv Actually there is only the first definition. The 2nd one defines the thermal equilibrium state $\rho_{eq} = e^{-\beta H}/Z$ for inverse temperature $\beta = 1/kT$ and is a particular case of the first. So no, the 2nd one is not independent of the state, it is the state. If the system's density matrix is some $\rho \neq \rho_{eq}$ then the system is away from equilibrium.
Apr 28, 2016 at 6:19 history asked biryani CC BY-SA 3.0