Timeline for Period of oscillation of magnet levitated over another magnet
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 13, 2016 at 18:48 | comment | added | faradayent | Thanks CuriousOne. You helped to substantiate what I was seeing. I've figured out another soln to what I was trying to accomplish. I'd like to mark your solution as the correct one, but I don't immediately see how on this board. | |
| Apr 13, 2016 at 3:53 | comment | added | CuriousOne | @faradayent: I am still thinking about that one. Intuitively it seems because the stronger magnet on the bottom pushes the top one into a stronger but "softer" field, but I haven't calculated that, yet, and I am not sure that it actually drops out of the $1/r^2$ type potential. The other problem is that this Coulomb type potential only works for the far field of individual poles, i.e. the magnets have to be long relative to the distance, and the distance has to be large relative to the thickness of the magnet, but neither condition is well met. | |
| Apr 13, 2016 at 2:35 | comment | added | CuriousOne | @faradayent: I am still thinking about that one. Intuitively it seems because the stronger magnet on the bottom pushes the top one into a stronger but "softer" field, but I haven't calculated that, yet, and I am not sure that it actually drops out of the $1/r^2$ type potential. | |
| Apr 12, 2016 at 22:53 | history | answered | CuriousOne | CC BY-SA 3.0 |