Timeline for Classical proof of the gyromagnetic ratio $g=2$
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
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| May 9, 2016 at 20:40 | vote | accept | AccidentalFourierTransform | ||
| Mar 24, 2022 at 10:32 | |||||
| Apr 8, 2016 at 9:57 | history | edited | Ilja | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 8, 2016 at 9:54 | comment | added | Ilja | ... this is strange; I tried to google it too, and found the paper you linked in your original question, and in its title there is "full sphere"... I edited the post to make the reasoning more clear. I dont see where it can be wrong, and we'll have to read the original papers to see what they meant... | |
| Apr 8, 2016 at 9:51 | history | edited | Ilja | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 6, 2016 at 16:52 | comment | added | AccidentalFourierTransform |
@Ilja (+1) Thank you very much for showing interest. I've got to say I'm pretty confident about my value for $\mu$ (I doubt it is twice as much) because I found the same result on many pages online (if I google magnetic moment of hollow sphere I find the same value $\mu=\frac{1}{5}er^2\omega$ everywhere...).
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| Apr 4, 2016 at 22:02 | comment | added | Ilja | you are right... I did the computation and edited the post. But still I am convinced the main point which seemed to be not obvius in the comments is right: the magnetic moment is for example calculated as current times area, and is thus for a fixed $\omega$ proportional to $r^2q$, just analogous to the moment of inertia. | |
| Apr 4, 2016 at 21:58 | history | edited | Ilja | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 4, 2016 at 21:40 | comment | added | knzhou | But the moment of inertia of a hollow sphere is $2/3$, not $4/5$. | |
| Apr 4, 2016 at 21:03 | history | answered | Ilja | CC BY-SA 3.0 |