Timeline for What is the meaning of the zero point of the real part of the dielectric function for a semiconductor?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
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| Feb 25, 2016 at 11:39 | comment | added | John Cao | Basically you are correct and I think it is important to find and understand the quasiparticle or transitions. According to Fig.11 in PHYSICAL REVIEW B 69, 245419 (2004), the zero point in my question seems to be related to the interband transition $\sigma\rightarrow\sigma^*$ | |
| Feb 25, 2016 at 9:41 | comment | added | Wolpertinger | @JohnCao: About plasmons being free eletron oscillations: that is probably true, so what we're searching for is some other kind of quasiparticle, that is a more complicated collective excitation that takes into account the interactions with the nuclei potential. One could maybe also explain by that why the dielectric function is the other way around (sry I missed that out in my answer) although that would require a detailed analysis of the excitation, similar to what we do in Lindhard theory en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lindhard_theory, but way more complicated due to the interaction. | |
| Feb 24, 2016 at 3:00 | comment | added | John Cao | Also, for a plasmon in metal, the real part of the dielectric function is negative at the left side of the zero point. But for the zero point in the figure above, the situation is just the opposite. | |
| Feb 24, 2016 at 2:48 | comment | added | John Cao | In my opinion, the plasmon is always related to free electrons. Therefore, basically, there shouldn't be any plasmon in an undoped semiconductor. Is that right? | |
| Feb 23, 2016 at 22:20 | history | answered | Wolpertinger | CC BY-SA 3.0 |