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Timeline for Why does time stop its flow?

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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:39 history edited CommunityBot
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Feb 5, 2016 at 11:49 comment added bright magus @BenBartlett: "Solving this for $t$ gives us ..." Well, this is relativity, right? So you cannot use the same $t$ for both frames - the moving and the stationary one. You need to account for time dilation, and therefore one is $t$ and the other is $t'$.
Feb 5, 2016 at 9:04 comment added Ben Bartlett The reason we can't deal with anything moving exactly at c is deeply mathematically based. An outline of why this doesn't work would be that a key property of any inertial frame is that there exists a way of transforming the frames from one to another. This is called a "proper, orthochronous Lorentz transformation", and this doesn't exist for a frame traveling at c. If you're looking for a nice intuitive explanation, the best (very loosely interpreted and not mathematically correct) idea of what happens at c is that there is no metric of space or time because both are infinitely contracted.
Feb 5, 2016 at 8:37 vote accept Srinath Pulaverthi
Feb 5, 2016 at 8:37 comment added Srinath Pulaverthi I do not really say your answer is wrong but i would like to what happens in the case it is at speed of light
Feb 5, 2016 at 8:33 comment added Ben Bartlett Can you elaborate on which point you are confused on? This derivation of time dilation holds for particles traveling at all speeds except exactly the speed of light, which is the range of speeds at which massive particles can travel.
Feb 5, 2016 at 8:11 comment added Srinath Pulaverthi i don't think what you are saying is correct Ben because coming to relativity, we always consider particles which travel at speeds comparable to velocity of light and your whole explanation is based on something exactly opposite
Feb 5, 2016 at 8:04 review First posts
Feb 5, 2016 at 8:48
Feb 5, 2016 at 8:03 history answered Ben Bartlett CC BY-SA 3.0