Timeline for Why is the "expansion postulate" a postulate of quantum mechanics?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 28, 2016 at 2:19 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jan 29, 2016 at 0:52 | |||||
| Jan 27, 2016 at 16:07 | answer | added | JQK | timeline score: 2 | |
| Jan 27, 2016 at 16:03 | history | edited | eepperly16 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jan 26, 2016 at 20:08 | comment | added | Mitchell Porter | I never heard of this didactic strategy before. It seems to be a way of declaring "we won't be looking at cases where this isn't true". physics.stackexchange.com/questions/68822/… | |
| Jan 26, 2016 at 17:39 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | It's just the spectral theorem, although care must be taken since it holds only for self-adjoint, not merely Hermitian operators (there is a difference on infinite-dimensional spaces). This question is basically unanswerable since the premise that the "expansion postulate" is a postulate is just false. | |
| Jan 26, 2016 at 17:23 | comment | added | Danu | Perhaps these notes are written for an audience that is not expected to understand functional analysis (like the spectral theorem): In such a situation, it may be better to simply say "we postulate"... | |
| Jan 26, 2016 at 17:21 | history | asked | eepperly16 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |