Timeline for Light cone argument for speed of light
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
18 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 5, 2023 at 13:23 | vote | accept | Benjamin | ||
| Nov 5, 2023 at 13:22 | vote | accept | Benjamin | ||
| Nov 5, 2023 at 13:23 | |||||
| May 16, 2018 at 13:17 | comment | added | Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir | @Gyro this is misleading. "Plain theoretical physics" doesn't state anything -- it states "if there is an invariant speed, then it's the maximum speed, and is the speed of massless particles". Experiment confirms that there is an invariant speed, and it is the speed of light. | |
| May 5, 2018 at 10:41 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
edited tags
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| May 5, 2018 at 10:37 | answer | added | Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir | timeline score: 0 | |
| Jan 11, 2017 at 20:53 | comment | added | Michael Seifert | You may also find this old answer of mine to be helpful in seeing how a "cosmic speed limit" is related to causality, without any reference to the speed of light. | |
| Jan 8, 2016 at 3:05 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jan 8, 2016 at 11:22 | |||||
| Jan 2, 2016 at 21:13 | answer | added | Timaeus | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jan 2, 2016 at 13:47 | answer | added | John Duffield | timeline score: -6 | |
| Jan 2, 2016 at 13:46 | answer | added | Gyro Gearloose | timeline score: 4 | |
| Jan 2, 2016 at 10:50 | comment | added | user10851 | @GyroGearloose That could be turned into an answer. | |
| Jan 2, 2016 at 10:16 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jan 2, 2016 at 13:21 | |||||
| Jan 1, 2016 at 20:30 | comment | added | Carl Witthoft | The light cone is a result of the finite speed of light, not the other way around. | |
| Jan 1, 2016 at 18:32 | comment | added | Qmechanic♦ | Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/6406/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/107963/2451 and links therein. | |
| Jan 1, 2016 at 17:57 | comment | added | Gyro Gearloose | Plain theoretical special relativity doesn't state that the speed of light is the fastest possible. It initially merely states that there is some limit speed (given as eigenvalue of the Lorentz-transformation), and experiment shows that light travels indistinguishably with this speed. | |
| S Jan 1, 2016 at 17:49 | history | suggested | TanMath | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
I edited out unnecessary parts
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| Jan 1, 2016 at 17:43 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Jan 1, 2016 at 17:49 | |||||
| Jan 1, 2016 at 17:27 | history | asked | Benjamin | CC BY-SA 3.0 |