Timeline for Connections between classical and quantum mechanics?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mar 9, 2012 at 16:07 | history | edited | Arnold Neumaier | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
emphasized the big picture
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| Mar 9, 2012 at 15:22 | comment | added | Peter Morgan | I'm good with that qualification. | |
| Mar 9, 2012 at 15:07 | comment | added | Arnold Neumaier | Note that this is just the big picture, leaving out all details, which would make drawing borders difficult. For example, 1+0-dimensional QFT is equivalent to QM, in the same way as classically, and QFT can be done via Hamiltonians (similarity renormalization!) - but if you look at the most common stuff, it fits my big picture. If you want to discuss this more, we'd go to a chat room. | |
| Mar 9, 2012 at 14:37 | comment | added | Peter Morgan | Do you really mean to say, or is it accidentally implied, that the distinction between QM and QFT can be characterized as respectively between quantizations of Hamiltonian and Lagrangian classical mechanics? It's a characterization that I find very doubtful in any case, but all the more so at the level of the question. | |
| Mar 9, 2012 at 9:09 | history | answered | Arnold Neumaier | CC BY-SA 3.0 |