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DanielSank
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Inconsistency with Electrostatic Energy Formulaselectrostatic energy formulas

The energy of point charge configuration can be written as:

$W = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{i=1}^{n}q_{i}V(r_{i})$, which $$W = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{i=1}^{n}q_{i}V(r_{i}) \, ,$$ which can take both positive and negative values.

However However, when we integrate the equation to get the energy of a continuous charge dustribution:

$W = \frac{1}{2}\int\rho Vd\tau \Rightarrow W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\left [ \int E^{2} d\tau + \oint VE\cdot da\right ]$ $$W = \frac{1}{2}\int\rho Vd\tau \Rightarrow W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\left [ \int E^{2} d\tau + \oint VE\cdot da\right ] \, .$$

Take the volume to integrate to be all space, then the second term vanishes: $W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\int E^{2}d\tau$, this$$W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\int E^{2}d\tau \, .$$ This formula can take only positive values.

So there is a discrepancy between the two formulas. What caused the discrepancy? According to Griffith's Introduction to Electrodynamics, it says in the former equation $V(r_{i})$ represent the potential due to all charges but $q_{i}$, whereas later $V(r_{i})$ is the full potential. But why would the original charge has any potential when there is no other charge already present?

Inconsistency with Electrostatic Energy Formulas

The energy of point charge configuration can be written as:

$W = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{i=1}^{n}q_{i}V(r_{i})$, which can take both positive and negative values.

However, when we integrate the equation to get the energy of a continuous charge dustribution:

$W = \frac{1}{2}\int\rho Vd\tau \Rightarrow W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\left [ \int E^{2} d\tau + \oint VE\cdot da\right ]$

Take the volume to integrate to be all space, then the second term vanishes: $W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\int E^{2}d\tau$, this formula can take only positive values.

So there is a discrepancy between the two formulas. What caused the discrepancy? According to Griffith's Introduction to Electrodynamics, it says in the former equation $V(r_{i})$ represent the potential due to all charges but $q_{i}$, whereas later $V(r_{i})$ is the full potential. But why would the original charge has any potential when there is no other charge already present?

Inconsistency with electrostatic energy formulas

The energy of point charge configuration can be written as: $$W = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{i=1}^{n}q_{i}V(r_{i}) \, ,$$ which can take both positive and negative values. However, when we integrate the equation to get the energy of a continuous charge dustribution: $$W = \frac{1}{2}\int\rho Vd\tau \Rightarrow W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\left [ \int E^{2} d\tau + \oint VE\cdot da\right ] \, .$$

Take the volume to integrate to be all space, then the second term vanishes: $$W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\int E^{2}d\tau \, .$$ This formula can take only positive values.

So there is a discrepancy between the two formulas. What caused the discrepancy? According to Griffith's Introduction to Electrodynamics, it says in the former equation $V(r_{i})$ represent the potential due to all charges but $q_{i}$, whereas later $V(r_{i})$ is the full potential. But why would the original charge has any potential when there is no other charge already present?

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Inconsistency with Electrostatic Energy Formulas

The energy of point charge configuration can be written as:

$W = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{i=1}^{n}q_{i}V(r_{i})$, which can take both positive and negative values.

However, when we integrate the equation to get the energy of a continuous charge dustribution:

$W = \frac{1}{2}\int\rho Vd\tau \Rightarrow W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\left [ \int E^{2} d\tau + \oint VE\cdot da\right ]$

Take the volume to integrate to be all space, then the second term vanishes: $W = \frac{\epsilon_{0}}{2}\int E^{2}d\tau$, this formula can take only positive values.

So there is a discrepancy between the two formulas. What caused the discrepancy? According to Griffith's Introduction to Electrodynamics, it says in the former equation $V(r_{i})$ represent the potential due to all charges but $q_{i}$, whereas later $V(r_{i})$ is the full potential. But why would the original charge has any potential when there is no other charge already present?