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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:39 history edited CommunityBot
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Nov 19, 2015 at 17:23 comment added Gert @IshitaGupta: that for slipping $v>\omega R$ can also be seen from the equations under c): just reduce $\mu$: the $v$ increases and $\omega$ decreases!
Nov 19, 2015 at 17:13 comment added Gert @IshitaGupta: $v>\omega R$ is always true when there is slipping. Only without slipping is $v=\omega R$. The critical $\mu_c$ needs to be applied when there no slipping. Applying the actual $\mu$ in that case leads to an over-estimate of the friction forces. Only when there's slippage use the true $\mu$. Re. your last point, friction keeps acting if: a) an accelerating force keeps acting or b) equilibrium speed hasn't been achieved yet.
Nov 19, 2015 at 16:35 comment added Ishita Gupta 3. In case 2 (b) you used umg in your equations but isn't that the maximum value /limiting value of friction ? which is at work when object is just about the slide .as friction is a self adjusting force couldn't its value be lesser than that as well . Also if friction keeps acting even after rolling then wouldn't it have angular acceleration /linear acceleration ruining the rolling condition ?
Nov 19, 2015 at 16:30 comment added Ishita Gupta thank you for you lucid and straightforward answer ,it made things a lot better for me .However I still have 3 doubts regarding your answer : 1. How did you establish that v>w in case 1 (c) from the equations as we have variables (F and radius of gyration for w) in both . 2. In case 2 you began with writing the critical condition for coeff of fric. for rolling but I wanted to ask why we don't also include the critical condition for sliding in this ( i.e coeff>tantheta) because if sliding starts then it won't be toppling
Nov 17, 2015 at 17:55 history edited Gert CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 17, 2015 at 16:27 history answered Gert CC BY-SA 3.0