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Timeline for Inverse Quantum Operator

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Oct 29, 2015 at 4:44 comment added Ali Moh right, one basis is countable and one is not. I edited the answer to provide a practical demonstration rather than an abstract argument
Oct 29, 2015 at 4:43 history edited Ali Moh CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 29, 2015 at 3:00 comment added ACuriousMind I first thought this, too, but the state $\lvert x \rangle$ is not a valid state in the Hilbert space, i.e. it is not a proper eigenvector of $x$, but only lies inside the larger part of a rigged Hilbert space. It is not clear that the existence of a zero eigenvector in a larger space forbids the invertibility on the Hilbert space.
Oct 29, 2015 at 2:43 history answered Ali Moh CC BY-SA 3.0