Timeline for How to derive the theory of quantum mechanics from quantum field theory?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
12 events
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| Jul 23, 2019 at 21:30 | history | edited | peterh | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Sep 26, 2015 at 1:19 | comment | added | Eric Yang | Thanks a lot. And in one of links, I find that the notes of David Tong are very clear on this topic. | |
| Sep 25, 2015 at 13:58 | comment | added | Qmechanic♦ | 1. More on reduction from QFT to QM: physics.stackexchange.com/q/26960/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/4156/2451 and links therein. 2. For a connection between Schr. eq. and Klein-Gordon eq, see e.g. A. Zee, QFT in a Nutshell, Chap. III.5, and this Phys.SE post plus links therein. | |
| Sep 25, 2015 at 13:57 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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| Sep 25, 2015 at 9:48 | vote | accept | Eric Yang | ||
| Sep 25, 2015 at 4:28 | comment | added | Mark Rosenblitt-Janssen | I suggest you look at my answer on <physics.stackexchange.com/q/19775>. | |
| Sep 25, 2015 at 4:20 | answer | added | Javier | timeline score: 10 | |
| Sep 25, 2015 at 3:39 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackPhysics/status/647254111973412864 | ||
| Sep 25, 2015 at 1:44 | answer | added | Cosmas Zachos | timeline score: 5 | |
| Sep 23, 2015 at 23:44 | comment | added | Eric Yang | In the view of path integral, quantum mechanics may be just 0+1 dimensional QFT. But here I mainly focus on canonical quantization, and I want to derive Schrodinger equation of particle's wave function if we assume the velocity of particles is low and neglect the creation and annihilation of particles. | |
| Sep 23, 2015 at 14:17 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | Just to be sure: QM is just 0+1 dimensional QFT, but you're asking if QM can be recovered generally as a low energy limit of the 3+1 QFT, right? | |
| Sep 23, 2015 at 14:06 | history | asked | Eric Yang | CC BY-SA 3.0 |