Timeline for How do you derive Fleming's left hand rule?
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| Jul 9, 2016 at 12:51 | comment | added | rob♦ | @sammygerbil I hadn't thought about the chronology; of course Fleming's observations came first and Lorentz's model is consistent with them. But there is still an arbitrary choice involved. The direction of a magnetic field --- a pseudovector quantity in a parity-conserving theory --- is not an observable. | |
| Jul 9, 2016 at 3:24 | comment | added | sammy gerbil | "Fleming's Rule is a consequence of the Lorentz force..."? Isn't that the wrong way round, as Sebastian Riese points out? The Lorentz force is modelled on (and therefore the consequence of) the observation within Fleming's Rule. | |
| Sep 21, 2015 at 19:45 | history | answered | rob♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |