Timeline for How do you derive Fleming's left hand rule?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
19 events
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| Sep 14, 2019 at 11:52 | answer | added | Mitko Gorgiev | timeline score: -1 | |
| Aug 8, 2016 at 5:56 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
| Jul 9, 2016 at 2:47 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
| Jun 8, 2016 at 5:09 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
| May 6, 2016 at 12:51 | history | bumped | CommunityBot | This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed. | |
| Sep 22, 2015 at 18:57 | comment | added | docscience | @Schrodinger'sDog ... this is my suggestion based on the one answer you received that addresses handedness. | |
| Sep 22, 2015 at 18:56 | comment | added | docscience | @Schrodinger'sDog then you may want to consider rewording, reposting your question for better clarity - regarding the orthogonal relationship rather than specific handedness. | |
| Sep 22, 2015 at 18:52 | comment | added | Schrodinger's Dog | @docscience that was basically the question I meant to be asking, not the convention but how do you get those directions fundamentally. | |
| Sep 22, 2015 at 17:42 | comment | added | docscience | @HolgerFiedler I don't believe I can improve on your paper. My point is that the more interesting question is not left or right (that's just convention) but rather why the relation of cross product and not some other mathematics. But I suppose that may be difficult if not impossible to answer. | |
| Sep 22, 2015 at 5:50 | comment | added | HolgerFiedler | @docscience Due to my poor English it is possible for you to improve the paper? | |
| Sep 21, 2015 at 19:57 | comment | added | docscience | A deeper question than right/left hand, and what HolgerFielder has commented, is Why an orthogonal arrangement of forces? | |
| Sep 21, 2015 at 19:54 | comment | added | docscience | @HolgerFiedler interesting similarity/analogy with angular momentum of a (macro size) spinning body, precession of its spin access and gyroscopic torque, all which also form an orthogonal system. | |
| Sep 21, 2015 at 19:45 | answer | added | rob♦ | timeline score: 1 | |
| Sep 21, 2015 at 19:05 | history | edited | Schrodinger's Dog | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Sep 14, 2015 at 10:58 | comment | added | HolgerFiedler | There is an explanation based on intrinsic spin of a particle and the related magnetic dipole moment. | |
| Sep 13, 2015 at 15:07 | comment | added | Sebastian Riese | This is an experimental result, not a theoretical one. (Furthermore, it depends on the sign convention used for the field and the current). Theoretically these results are captured in the expression for the Lorentz force, specifically $\vec F = q \vec v \times \vec B$. | |
| Sep 13, 2015 at 13:39 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Sep 13, 2015 at 8:04 | review | First posts | |||
| Sep 13, 2015 at 10:45 | |||||
| Sep 13, 2015 at 8:03 | history | asked | Schrodinger's Dog | CC BY-SA 3.0 |