Timeline for Expressing a particle's matter wave in terms of its momentum
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
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| Jan 25, 2012 at 19:15 | vote | accept | countunique | ||
| Jan 25, 2012 at 16:45 | comment | added | Maksim Zholudev | @user19192, nothing happens to $\psi(x,t)$ here. You have wrong assumption that functions $\tilde\phi(p)$ and $\phi(p/\hbar)$ are equal. They differ by $\sqrt{\hbar}$ because the basis functions are also different. See the 2nd and 3rd formulas in the updated part of my answer. | |
| Jan 25, 2012 at 16:40 | history | edited | Maksim Zholudev | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jan 25, 2012 at 16:30 | history | edited | Maksim Zholudev | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jan 25, 2012 at 16:06 | comment | added | countunique | I haven't studied bra-kets yet so I will have to save this to read later. But you are basically saying to just re-normalize the wave function? That makes notation tricky because then the $\psi(x,t)$ are no longer equal to themselves. | |
| Jan 25, 2012 at 8:34 | history | edited | Maksim Zholudev | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jan 25, 2012 at 8:29 | history | answered | Maksim Zholudev | CC BY-SA 3.0 |