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It usually just means that the expectation of the energy of the state is infinity (and so could never arise from a state with finite average energy by time evolution or measurements), so that the physical state space does not need these states, except as limits.

An example for P is the state

$$\psi(p) = {1\over\sqrt{p^2+1}} $$

This is normalizable (i.e., square integrable), but multiplying by $p$ takes you out of the normalizable states---so it takes you outside the Hilbert space---so $\psi$ is not, strictly speaking, in the domain of P. The Hamiltonian has a P$^2$ term, so that the expectation of the energy of this state is infinite, since

$$ \langle \psi |P P|\psi\rangle =\infty$$

means that $\langle P^2\rangle=\infty$, so that $\langle H\rangle=\infty$.

An analogous $\psi$ for x would be defined by replacing $p$ above by $x$: $$\phi(x) = {1\over\sqrt{x^2+1}} $$ Such a state is not as localized, even though zero is its average position. But it has an infinite variance in position--- if you measure the position again and again, you will not have an average deviation. This wavefunction is infinitely spread out, so it is not really useful for describing a particle which is somewhere. It is an idealization, like a plane-wave state.

These mathematical subtleties are never all that interesting outside of pure mathematics--- they are eliminated completely by working in a finite lattice of a bounded size, and this procedure must preserve all physical behavior for a large enough lattice with small enough spacing. The regulator cannot wreck the physics.

See also here: Regularisation of infinite-dimensional determinantsRegularisation of infinite-dimensional determinants

It usually just means that the expectation of the energy of the state is infinity (and so could never arise from a state with finite average energy by time evolution or measurements), so that the physical state space does not need these states, except as limits.

An example for P is the state

$$\psi(p) = {1\over\sqrt{p^2+1}} $$

This is normalizable (i.e., square integrable), but multiplying by $p$ takes you out of the normalizable states---so it takes you outside the Hilbert space---so $\psi$ is not, strictly speaking, in the domain of P. The Hamiltonian has a P$^2$ term, so that the expectation of the energy of this state is infinite, since

$$ \langle \psi |P P|\psi\rangle =\infty$$

means that $\langle P^2\rangle=\infty$, so that $\langle H\rangle=\infty$.

An analogous $\psi$ for x would be defined by replacing $p$ above by $x$: $$\phi(x) = {1\over\sqrt{x^2+1}} $$ Such a state is not as localized, even though zero is its average position. But it has an infinite variance in position--- if you measure the position again and again, you will not have an average deviation. This wavefunction is infinitely spread out, so it is not really useful for describing a particle which is somewhere. It is an idealization, like a plane-wave state.

These mathematical subtleties are never all that interesting outside of pure mathematics--- they are eliminated completely by working in a finite lattice of a bounded size, and this procedure must preserve all physical behavior for a large enough lattice with small enough spacing. The regulator cannot wreck the physics.

See also here: Regularisation of infinite-dimensional determinants

It usually just means that the expectation of the energy of the state is infinity (and so could never arise from a state with finite average energy by time evolution or measurements), so that the physical state space does not need these states, except as limits.

An example for P is the state

$$\psi(p) = {1\over\sqrt{p^2+1}} $$

This is normalizable (i.e., square integrable), but multiplying by $p$ takes you out of the normalizable states---so it takes you outside the Hilbert space---so $\psi$ is not, strictly speaking, in the domain of P. The Hamiltonian has a P$^2$ term, so that the expectation of the energy of this state is infinite, since

$$ \langle \psi |P P|\psi\rangle =\infty$$

means that $\langle P^2\rangle=\infty$, so that $\langle H\rangle=\infty$.

An analogous $\psi$ for x would be defined by replacing $p$ above by $x$: $$\phi(x) = {1\over\sqrt{x^2+1}} $$ Such a state is not as localized, even though zero is its average position. But it has an infinite variance in position--- if you measure the position again and again, you will not have an average deviation. This wavefunction is infinitely spread out, so it is not really useful for describing a particle which is somewhere. It is an idealization, like a plane-wave state.

These mathematical subtleties are never all that interesting outside of pure mathematics--- they are eliminated completely by working in a finite lattice of a bounded size, and this procedure must preserve all physical behavior for a large enough lattice with small enough spacing. The regulator cannot wreck the physics.

See also here: Regularisation of infinite-dimensional determinants

fix mistakes introduced by Joseph f. Johnson (come on! At least edit when you know for sure)
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Ron Maimon
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It usually just means that the expectation of the energy of the state is infinity (and so could never arise from a state with finite average energy by time evolution or measurements), so that the physical state space does not need these states, except as limits.

An example for P is the state

$$\psi(p) = {1\over\sqrt{p^2+1}} $$

This is normalizable (i.e., square integrable), but multiplying by $p$ takes you out of the normalizable states---so it takes you outside the Hilbert space---so $\psi$ is not, strictly speaking, in the domain of P. The Hamiltonian has a P$^2$ term, so that the expectation of the energy of this state is infinite, since

$$ \langle \psi |P P|\psi\rangle =\infty$$

means that $\langle P^2\rangle=\infty$, so that $\langle H\rangle=\infty$.

An analogous $\psi$ for x would be defined by replacing $p$ above by $x$: $$\phi(x) = {1\over\sqrt{x^2+1}} $$ Such a state is not as localized as a Gaussian because although it has a peak at zero, even though zero is not its average position:. But it does not even havehas an averageinfinite variance in position since, as we saw for--- if you measure the other functionposition again and again, the expectation oryou will not have an average positiondeviation. This wavefunction is infinityinfinitely spread out, so it is not really useful for describing a particle which is somewhere. It is an idealization, like a plane-wave state.

These mathematical subtleties are never all that interesting outside of pure mathematics--- they are eliminated completely by working in a finite lattice of a bounded size, and this procedure must preserve all physical behavior for a large enough lattice with small enough spacing. The regulator cannot wreck the physics.

See also here: Regularisation of infinite-dimensional determinants

It usually just means that the expectation of the energy of the state is infinity (and so could never arise from a state with finite average energy by time evolution or measurements), so that the physical state space does not need these states, except as limits.

An example for P is the state

$$\psi(p) = {1\over\sqrt{p^2+1}} $$

This is normalizable (i.e., square integrable), but multiplying by $p$ takes you out of the normalizable states---so it takes you outside the Hilbert space---so $\psi$ is not, strictly speaking, in the domain of P. The Hamiltonian has a P$^2$ term, so that the expectation of the energy of this state is infinite, since

$$ \langle \psi |P P|\psi\rangle =\infty$$

means that $\langle P^2\rangle=\infty$, so that $\langle H\rangle=\infty$.

An analogous $\psi$ for x would be defined by replacing $p$ above by $x$: $$\phi(x) = {1\over\sqrt{x^2+1}} $$ Such a state is not as localized as a Gaussian because although it has a peak at zero, zero is not its average position: it does not even have an average position since, as we saw for the other function, the expectation or average position is infinity, so it is not really useful for describing a particle which is somewhere.

These mathematical subtleties are never all that interesting outside of pure mathematics--- they are eliminated completely by working in a finite lattice of a bounded size, and this procedure must preserve all physical behavior for a large enough lattice with small enough spacing. The regulator cannot wreck the physics.

See also here: Regularisation of infinite-dimensional determinants

It usually just means that the expectation of the energy of the state is infinity (and so could never arise from a state with finite average energy by time evolution or measurements), so that the physical state space does not need these states, except as limits.

An example for P is the state

$$\psi(p) = {1\over\sqrt{p^2+1}} $$

This is normalizable (i.e., square integrable), but multiplying by $p$ takes you out of the normalizable states---so it takes you outside the Hilbert space---so $\psi$ is not, strictly speaking, in the domain of P. The Hamiltonian has a P$^2$ term, so that the expectation of the energy of this state is infinite, since

$$ \langle \psi |P P|\psi\rangle =\infty$$

means that $\langle P^2\rangle=\infty$, so that $\langle H\rangle=\infty$.

An analogous $\psi$ for x would be defined by replacing $p$ above by $x$: $$\phi(x) = {1\over\sqrt{x^2+1}} $$ Such a state is not as localized, even though zero is its average position. But it has an infinite variance in position--- if you measure the position again and again, you will not have an average deviation. This wavefunction is infinitely spread out, so it is not really useful for describing a particle which is somewhere. It is an idealization, like a plane-wave state.

These mathematical subtleties are never all that interesting outside of pure mathematics--- they are eliminated completely by working in a finite lattice of a bounded size, and this procedure must preserve all physical behavior for a large enough lattice with small enough spacing. The regulator cannot wreck the physics.

See also here: Regularisation of infinite-dimensional determinants

It usually just means that the state has infinite meanexpectation of the energy and soof the state is not realizableinfinity (and so could never arise from a state with finite average energy by time evolution andor measurements, when you have a finite energy at your disposal), so that ththe physical Hilbertstate space does not need these states, except as limits.

An example for P is the state

$$\psi(p) = {1\over\sqrt{p^2+1}} $$

This is square normalizable (i.e., square integrable), but multiplying by P$p$ takes you out of squarethe normalizable states---so it takes you outside the Hilbert space---so $\psi$ is not, strictly speaking, in the domain of P. The Hamiltonian has a P^2P$^2$ term, so that the expectation of the energy of this state hasis infinite kinetic energy, since

$$ \langle \psi |P P|\psi\rangle =\infty$$

means that $\langle P^2\rangle=\infty$, so that $\langle H\rangle=\infty$.

An analogous $\psi$ for x iswould be defined by replacing p by x$p$ above. by $x$: $$\phi(x) = {1\over\sqrt{x^2+1}} $$ Such a state is not as localized as a Gaussian because although it has a peak at allzero, zero is not its average position: it does not even have an average position since, as we saw for the other function, the expectation or average position is infinity, so it is not really useful for describing a particle which is somewhere.

These mathematical subtleties are never all that interesting outside of pure mathematics--- they are eliminated completely by working in a finite lattice of a bounded size, and this procedure must preserve all physical behavior for a large enough lattice with small enough spacing. The regulator cannot wreck the physics.

See also here: Regularisation of infinite-dimensional determinants

It usually just means that the state has infinite mean energy and so is not realizable by time evolution and measurements, when you have a finite energy at your disposal, so that th physical Hilbert space does not need these states, except as limits.

An example for P is the state

$$\psi(p) = {1\over\sqrt{p^2+1}} $$

This is square normalizable, but multiplying by P takes you out of square normalizable states. The Hamiltonian has a P^2 term, so that this state has infinite kinetic energy, since

$$ \langle \psi |P P|\psi\rangle =\infty$$

means that $\langle P^2\rangle=\infty$, so that $\langle H\rangle=\infty$.

An analogous $\psi$ for x is defined by replacing p by x above. Such a state is not localized at all, so it is not really useful for describing a particle which is somewhere.

These mathematical subtleties are never all that interesting outside of pure mathematics--- they are eliminated completely by working in a finite lattice of a bounded size, and this procedure must preserve all physical behavior for a large enough lattice with small enough spacing. The regulator cannot wreck the physics.

See also here: Regularisation of infinite-dimensional determinants

It usually just means that the expectation of the energy of the state is infinity (and so could never arise from a state with finite average energy by time evolution or measurements), so that the physical state space does not need these states, except as limits.

An example for P is the state

$$\psi(p) = {1\over\sqrt{p^2+1}} $$

This is normalizable (i.e., square integrable), but multiplying by $p$ takes you out of the normalizable states---so it takes you outside the Hilbert space---so $\psi$ is not, strictly speaking, in the domain of P. The Hamiltonian has a P$^2$ term, so that the expectation of the energy of this state is infinite, since

$$ \langle \psi |P P|\psi\rangle =\infty$$

means that $\langle P^2\rangle=\infty$, so that $\langle H\rangle=\infty$.

An analogous $\psi$ for x would be defined by replacing $p$ above by $x$: $$\phi(x) = {1\over\sqrt{x^2+1}} $$ Such a state is not as localized as a Gaussian because although it has a peak at zero, zero is not its average position: it does not even have an average position since, as we saw for the other function, the expectation or average position is infinity, so it is not really useful for describing a particle which is somewhere.

These mathematical subtleties are never all that interesting outside of pure mathematics--- they are eliminated completely by working in a finite lattice of a bounded size, and this procedure must preserve all physical behavior for a large enough lattice with small enough spacing. The regulator cannot wreck the physics.

See also here: Regularisation of infinite-dimensional determinants

fix for josephf.johnson's comments
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Ron Maimon
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Ron Maimon
  • 1
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  • 207
  • 346
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