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Why For an event that can occur in many ways, why is the wavefunction of identical particles the event the sum of the wavefunctionswavevfunction for different arrangements of identical particleseach way separately?

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user36790
user36790

The wavefunction of identical particles is given as: $$\psi_{1,2} (x_1,x_2) = \psi_1(x_1)\psi_2(x_2) + \psi_2(x_1)\psi_1(x_2)$$ . Why is it so? Why is it the sum of the two states? What is the explanation behind this? Yes, I know that wavefunction being a linear combination of the solutions of Schrodinger's equation is a solution itself. But that does answer only mathematically.

In order to get a deep insight, I again read Feynman's introductory lectures where he wrote:

When an event can occur in several ways, the probability amplitude for the event is the sum of the probability amplitudes for each way considered separately. There is interference. $$\phi = \phi_1 +\phi_2$$ .

In a word, my questionWhy is : what does it mean when you say the wavefunction is the superposition of some other statesso?

The wavefunction of identical particles is given as: $$\psi_{1,2} (x_1,x_2) = \psi_1(x_1)\psi_2(x_2) + \psi_2(x_1)\psi_1(x_2)$$ . Why is it so? Why is it the sum of the two states? What is the explanation behind this? Yes, I know that wavefunction being a linear combination of the solutions of Schrodinger's equation is a solution itself. But that does answer only mathematically.

In order to get a deep insight, I again read Feynman's introductory lectures where he wrote:

When an event can occur in several ways, the probability amplitude for the event is the sum of the probability amplitudes for each way considered separately. There is interference. $$\phi = \phi_1 +\phi_2$$ .

In a word, my question is : what does it mean when you say the wavefunction is the superposition of some other states?

The wavefunction of identical particles is given as: $$\psi_{1,2} (x_1,x_2) = \psi_1(x_1)\psi_2(x_2) + \psi_2(x_1)\psi_1(x_2)$$ . Why is it so? Why is it the sum of the two states? What is the explanation behind this? Yes, I know that wavefunction being a linear combination of the solutions of Schrodinger's equation is a solution itself. But that does answer only mathematically.

In order to get a deep insight, I again read Feynman's introductory lectures where he wrote:

When an event can occur in several ways, the probability amplitude for the event is the sum of the probability amplitudes for each way considered separately. There is interference. $$\phi = \phi_1 +\phi_2$$ .

Why is it so?

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user36790
user36790

Why is the wavefunction of identical particles the sum of the wavefunctions for different arrangements of identical particles?

The wavefunction of identical particles is given as: $$\psi_{1,2} (x_1,x_2) = \psi_1(x_1)\psi_2(x_2) + \psi_2(x_1)\psi_1(x_2)$$ . Why is it so? Why is it the sum of the two states? What is the explanation behind this? Yes, I know that wavefunction being a linear combination of the solutions of Schrodinger's equation is a solution itself. But that does answer only mathematically.

In order to get a deep insight, I again read Feynman's introductory lectures where he wrote:

When an event can occur in several ways, the probability amplitude for the event is the sum of the probability amplitudes for each way considered separately. There is interference. $$\phi = \phi_1 +\phi_2$$ .

In a word, my question is : what does it mean when you say the wavefunction is the superposition of some other states?