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Apr 17, 2023 at 14:37 comment added cx1114 why isn't the global U(1) still a gauge group tho? It does not transform one groundstate to another right ?
Jan 22, 2021 at 7:53 history edited Nihar Karve CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 10, 2019 at 14:35 comment added Nanashi No Gombe @buzhidao Since we are reinterpreting the original $U(1)$ gauge transformation as a shift in the goldstone (in order to argue that gauge symmetry is intact), and since the new Lagrangian is still invariant under a global shift, does that not mean that the global $U(1)$ phase rotation symmetry is as much intact as the local gauge symmetry? In other words, why do we reinterpret the $U(1) $gauge transformation as a shift of the goldstone, but do not reinterpret the global $U(1)$ symmetry as a global shift invariance?
Aug 11, 2017 at 13:43 comment added an offer can't refuse @SRS You can ignore that part, I just want to confirm the Lagrangian is gauge invariant.
Aug 7, 2017 at 16:21 comment added SRS @buzhidao Can you please explain the expression above the statement "Which means the Lagrangian is still gauge invariant." Is it some typo?
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:39 history edited CommunityBot
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Mar 12, 2017 at 8:34 comment added an offer can't refuse @RubenVerresen Because it is easy to check the symmetry operation $\phi\to\phi e^{i c}$ doesn't change the Lagrangian, where $c$ is independent of $x$.
Dec 30, 2016 at 22:14 comment added Ruben Verresen Great post. I do not see why you call the global U(1) a symmetry though. It is as much gauge as the local part.
Jul 7, 2015 at 13:34 history edited an offer can't refuse CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 22, 2015 at 7:32 history answered an offer can't refuse CC BY-SA 3.0