Timeline for Do particles have spin because there exist spinor representations for the Lorentz group?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 6, 2015 at 3:12 | vote | accept | Hare Krishna | ||
| Jun 5, 2015 at 17:43 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
edited tags
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| Jun 5, 2015 at 17:40 | vote | accept | Hare Krishna | ||
| Jun 5, 2015 at 17:40 | |||||
| Jun 5, 2015 at 17:31 | answer | added | Bosoneando | timeline score: 2 | |
| Jun 5, 2015 at 17:11 | comment | added | Bosoneando | Related question: physics.stackexchange.com/q/133195 | |
| Jun 5, 2015 at 17:03 | comment | added | Emilio Pisanty | Hi Hare Krishna, I have taken the liberty to clarify your question as I suspect English may not be your first language, and the question was very unclear. Please let me know if I have substantially changed what you meant, or feel free to rollback the edit here. | |
| Jun 5, 2015 at 17:01 | history | edited | Emilio Pisanty | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Clarified language.
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| Jun 5, 2015 at 16:36 | history | asked | Hare Krishna | CC BY-SA 3.0 |