Timeline for Why is $F$ defined as $ma$?
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| Jun 3, 2015 at 12:41 | comment | added | danielsmw | Interactions cause both, and wondering if we should prefer the velocity interaction is a philosophical inquiry. You've just named your own philosophy "reality" in the comment above. The reality of the situation corresponds to classical mechanics, which is well established, and replacing newton's law is again a philosophy question. I have answered it with Occam's razor. | |
| Jun 3, 2015 at 8:27 | comment | added | Shing | Recently, I am thinking if we should not make up math out of philosophical idea/ mathematics, but out of reality. which means, if interaction (which can be defined as never occuring by one object alone) is causing speed in stead of acceleration, then we have a law F proportional to speed (the Greek idea?). Anyway, I need some time to think it through, recent school work is too much. | |
| May 30, 2015 at 19:25 | history | answered | danielsmw | CC BY-SA 3.0 |