Timeline for If velocity is constant, how can $p = F\cdot v$ be non zero?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
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| Apr 5, 2015 at 15:44 | comment | added | Arturo don Juan | What I have basically said was that a block moving across a frictionless plane at a constant velocity will not do any work, and hence no power. This is true even though there is a normal force that the plane is exerting on the block, which is always perpendicular to its velocity. | |
| Apr 5, 2015 at 15:39 | comment | added | Arturo don Juan | No, it is not zero in that case! Your doubt is correct. In your case, there is a force needed to push the block across the plane. The case I posited was one in which there was no friction (i.e. no 'air resistance' for the hoverboard to overcome) | |
| Apr 5, 2015 at 7:03 | review | Low quality answers | |||
| Apr 5, 2015 at 8:45 | |||||
| Apr 5, 2015 at 6:27 | comment | added | Akib Ahmed Ishan | so if I'm dragging a block attached to a string on a frictional plane at a constant speed is the work done by me really non zero??...(I'm thinking that the force I'm exerting on the block and the frictional force is the same and opposite so the net force is 0 and work done should also be 0.Kindly clarify if there's any misconception.) | |
| Apr 5, 2015 at 6:05 | history | answered | Arturo don Juan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |