Timeline for If velocity is constant, how can $p = F\cdot v$ be non zero?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| Apr 13, 2017 at 12:39 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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| Apr 5, 2015 at 6:35 | comment | added | Vatsal Manot | @AkibAhmedIshan: Please observe the changes I've made to my question. It should help clear some doubts. | |
| Apr 5, 2015 at 6:34 | history | edited | Vatsal Manot | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 5, 2015 at 6:26 | history | edited | Vatsal Manot | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Apr 5, 2015 at 6:11 | comment | added | Vatsal Manot | Yes, the power would be non-zero, as it would have to overcome the effects of friction, air-resistance and even retardation due to gravity. | |
| Apr 5, 2015 at 6:05 | comment | added | Akib Ahmed Ishan | what about a car that is being driven on a road at a constant velocity ?...would it's power also be non zero? because the net force on the car would be zero and work should be zero too right? | |
| Apr 5, 2015 at 5:55 | history | answered | Vatsal Manot | CC BY-SA 3.0 |