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Nov 5, 2015 at 16:20 answer added mike stone timeline score: 2
Mar 25, 2015 at 5:10 vote accept Frank
Mar 24, 2015 at 15:19 answer added Gonenc timeline score: 1
Mar 24, 2015 at 14:36 history edited Qmechanic
edited tags
Mar 24, 2015 at 4:48 answer added hft timeline score: 0
Mar 24, 2015 at 2:07 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
Removed the primes which OP has acknowledged as typos
Mar 24, 2015 at 0:15 answer added Qmechanic timeline score: 2
Mar 23, 2015 at 22:55 comment added Frank The one before last step in the first derivation probably cannot be correct, because it is integrating over $p'$, but ignores the $p'$ before $\langle x\ |\ p'\rangle$.
Mar 23, 2015 at 22:50 history edited Frank CC BY-SA 3.0
edited title
Mar 23, 2015 at 22:39 comment added Frank That is the question! It's wrong in at least one place, and probably several, and I can't seem to figure the wrong step(s) :-)
Mar 23, 2015 at 22:38 comment added user73762 @Frank: You're right, I seem to have forgotten how to integrate and have deleted my unhelpful earlier comment. That leaves an obviously incorrect negative sign to be explained. Just how did you get a different sign for $\langle x|p \rangle$ in the first calculation compared to $\langle x|p^\prime \rangle$ in the second one?
Mar 23, 2015 at 21:05 history edited DanielSank CC BY-SA 3.0
TeXified title
Mar 23, 2015 at 20:41 history edited Frank CC BY-SA 3.0
added 100 characters in body
Mar 23, 2015 at 20:34 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
edited tags; edited title
Mar 23, 2015 at 20:33 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
edited tags; edited title
Mar 23, 2015 at 20:28 history asked Frank CC BY-SA 3.0