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Steven Mathey
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In your decompositon you have

$$ \psi = 1/r^3$$

and

$$ \vec{E} = \vec{r} \, .$$

Then, as you wrote,

$$ \vec{\nabla} \cdot \left(\vec{r} \frac{1}{r^3}\right) = \vec{\nabla}\psi \cdot \vec{r} + \psi \vec{\nabla}\cdot \vec{r} \, .$$

Insert

$$ \vec{\nabla} \psi = -\frac{3}{r^5} \vec{r}$$

and

$$\vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{r} = 3$$

and you are done.

Note that this is only true for $r\neq 0$. The full answer is

$$\vec{\nabla} \left(\frac{r}{r^3}\right) = 4\pi\delta(\vec{r}) \, .$$

Indeed, if you ignore the fact that $\vec{\nabla} \left(\frac{r}{r^3}\right) =0$ and take the volume integral (which contains the origin $\vec{r}=0$!) over a sphere of volume $R$:

$$ \int \text{dr}^3 \vec{\nabla} \left(\frac{r}{r^3}\right) \, ,$$

you can use gauss's law and convert this to an intereal over the surface of the sphere

$$ \int \frac{r}{r^3} \cdot \vec{dS} = 4 \pi R^2 \, \frac{R}{R^3} = 4 \pi \neq 0 \, .$$

We see that the integral over a finite volume of a function that is zero everywhere except at $\vec{r}=0$ gives a finite answer. This means that $\vec{\nabla} \left(\frac{r}{r^3}\right)$ is infinite at the origin.

In your decompositon you have

$$ \psi = 1/r^3$$

and

$$ \vec{E} = \vec{r} \, .$$

Then, as you wrote,

$$ \vec{\nabla} \cdot \left(\vec{r} \frac{1}{r^3}\right) = \vec{\nabla}\psi \cdot \vec{r} + \psi \vec{\nabla}\cdot \vec{r} \, .$$

Insert

$$ \vec{\nabla} \psi = -\frac{3}{r^5} \vec{r}$$

and

$$\vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{r} = 3$$

and you are done.

In your decompositon you have

$$ \psi = 1/r^3$$

and

$$ \vec{E} = \vec{r} \, .$$

Then, as you wrote,

$$ \vec{\nabla} \cdot \left(\vec{r} \frac{1}{r^3}\right) = \vec{\nabla}\psi \cdot \vec{r} + \psi \vec{\nabla}\cdot \vec{r} \, .$$

Insert

$$ \vec{\nabla} \psi = -\frac{3}{r^5} \vec{r}$$

and

$$\vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{r} = 3$$

and you are done.

Note that this is only true for $r\neq 0$. The full answer is

$$\vec{\nabla} \left(\frac{r}{r^3}\right) = 4\pi\delta(\vec{r}) \, .$$

Indeed, if you ignore the fact that $\vec{\nabla} \left(\frac{r}{r^3}\right) =0$ and take the volume integral (which contains the origin $\vec{r}=0$!) over a sphere of volume $R$:

$$ \int \text{dr}^3 \vec{\nabla} \left(\frac{r}{r^3}\right) \, ,$$

you can use gauss's law and convert this to an intereal over the surface of the sphere

$$ \int \frac{r}{r^3} \cdot \vec{dS} = 4 \pi R^2 \, \frac{R}{R^3} = 4 \pi \neq 0 \, .$$

We see that the integral over a finite volume of a function that is zero everywhere except at $\vec{r}=0$ gives a finite answer. This means that $\vec{\nabla} \left(\frac{r}{r^3}\right)$ is infinite at the origin.

Source Link
Steven Mathey
  • 4.4k
  • 15
  • 41

In your decompositon you have

$$ \psi = 1/r^3$$

and

$$ \vec{E} = \vec{r} \, .$$

Then, as you wrote,

$$ \vec{\nabla} \cdot \left(\vec{r} \frac{1}{r^3}\right) = \vec{\nabla}\psi \cdot \vec{r} + \psi \vec{\nabla}\cdot \vec{r} \, .$$

Insert

$$ \vec{\nabla} \psi = -\frac{3}{r^5} \vec{r}$$

and

$$\vec{\nabla} \cdot \vec{r} = 3$$

and you are done.