I was reading about how a Fourier transform yields the wave-function expressed in terms of the momenta which constitute it, i.e. the wave-function in momentum space.

I'm not so good at calculus yet so I couldn't do this yet: what would happen, qualitatively, if we took the inverse Fourier transform of a wave-function? I figure it would yield something which is constituted by the probability amplitudes of a wave-function, does that mean it will yield 1? Thank you.

Relevant information: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_transform

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_function

I was reading about how a Fourier transform yields the wave-function expressed in terms of the momenta which constitute it, i.e. the wave-function in momentum space.

I'm not so good at calculus yet so I couldn't do this yet: what would happen, qualitatively, if we took the inverse Fourier transform of a wave-function? I figure it would yield something which is constituted by the probability amplitudes of a wave-function, does that mean it will yield 1?

Relevant information: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_transform

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_function

This is my first post so I'm sorry if I step on any toes.

I was reading about how a Fourier transform yields the wave-function expressed in terms of the momenta which constitute it, i.e. the wave-function in momentum space.

I'm not so good at calculus yet so I couldn't do this yet: what would happen, qualitatively, if we took the inverse Fourier transform of a wave-function? I figure it would yield something which is constituted by the probability amplitudes of a wave-function, does that mean it will yield 1? Thank you.

Sincerely, Mir

relevant information: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_transform

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_function

I was reading about how a Fourier transform yields the wave-function expressed in terms of the momenta which constitute it, i.e. the wave-function in momentum space.

I'm not so good at calculus yet so I couldn't do this yet: what would happen, qualitatively, if we took the inverse Fourier transform of a wave-function? I figure it would yield something which is constituted by the probability amplitudes of a wave-function, does that mean it will yield 1? Thank you.

Relevant information: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_transform

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wave_function