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Jan 21, 2015 at 6:17 comment added M-J Although it is a "special case", at the end it is a special case of "trigonal"; so it is a trigonal. How could FCC be distinct regarding this. I know FCC is a distinct form, because it has been proven mathematically by Bravais. I want an explanation apart from complicated math!
Jan 20, 2015 at 14:47 comment added Jon Custer Because that 'special case' introduces new symmetries into the lattice that are not present in the trigonal case. That is the whole point - special cases are special for a mathematical reason.
Jan 20, 2015 at 13:26 comment added Ruslan In the special case of $\alpha=\beta=\gamma=60^\circ$ it does have the same primitive vectors as FCC lattice, thus it coincides with it. How can their symmetries be different?
Jan 20, 2015 at 13:20 comment added mdib The trigonal lattice does not have the cubic symmetry, so the fcc lattice cannot be reduced to a trigonal one.
Jan 20, 2015 at 12:58 comment added Ruslan But how would you refute the claim that FCC lattice is a special case of trigonal lattice?
Jan 20, 2015 at 12:28 review First posts
Jan 20, 2015 at 12:38
Jan 20, 2015 at 12:20 history answered mdib CC BY-SA 3.0