Timeline for If $(q,p)$ to $(Q,P)$ is a canonical transformation, then does this imply $(Q,P)$ to $(q,p)$ is also?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 4, 2015 at 15:15 | vote | accept | Hans Schmuber | ||
| Jan 3, 2015 at 13:53 | comment | added | Qmechanic♦ | Comment to the question (v2): Note that there exist various definitions of a canonical transformation (CT) in the literature, cf. e.g. this Phys.SE post and links therein. | |
| Jan 3, 2015 at 13:48 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 53 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
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| Jan 3, 2015 at 13:04 | answer | added | Phoenix87 | timeline score: 3 | |
| Jan 3, 2015 at 12:12 | history | asked | Hans Schmuber | CC BY-SA 3.0 |