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S Jan 2, 2015 at 8:25 history edited Geoffrey CC BY-SA 3.0
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S Jan 2, 2015 at 8:25 history suggested glS CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 2, 2015 at 7:57 review Suggested edits
S Jan 2, 2015 at 8:25
Jan 2, 2015 at 7:57 comment added Guillermo Angeris That is correct. Note that, at the point that the object is accelerating, we have some net work done in the direction of motion (that is $F\cdot ds>0$) and then the retarding force causes $F\cdot ds < 0$ by exactly the same amount, hence the change in kinetic energy is zero.
Jan 2, 2015 at 7:55 answer added gregsan timeline score: 1
Jan 2, 2015 at 7:43 review First posts
Jan 2, 2015 at 7:58
Jan 2, 2015 at 7:42 history asked reg CC BY-SA 3.0