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user65081
user65081

Yes, unfortunately. Because of the equivalence of inertial reference frames, the the physical alwslaws are the same in both reference frames.

However, another possibility, which is non abelian, is that instead of feeling the same amount of pain, you could be feeling the opposite amount of pleasure. It depends if pain (X) are fermions or bosons, that is, if their function is symmetric or anti-symmetric.

Yes, unfortunately. Because of the equivalence of inertial reference frames, the the physical alws are the same in both reference frames.

However, another possibility, which is non abelian, is that instead of feeling the same amount of pain, you could be feeling the opposite amount of pleasure. It depends if pain (X) are fermions or bosons, that is, if their function is symmetric or anti-symmetric.

Yes, unfortunately. Because of the equivalence of inertial reference frames, the the physical laws are the same in both reference frames.

However, another possibility, which is non abelian, is that instead of feeling the same amount of pain, you could be feeling the opposite amount of pleasure. It depends if pain (X) are fermions or bosons, that is, if their function is symmetric or anti-symmetric.

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user65081
user65081

Yes, unfortunately. Because of the equivalence of inertial reference frames, the amount of all measurable variables isthe physical alws are the same in both reference frames.

AnotherHowever, another possibility, which is non abelian, is that instead of feeling the same amount of pain, you could be feeling the opposite amount of pleasure. It depends if pain (X) are fermions or bosons, that is, if their function is symmetric or anti-symmetric.

Yes, unfortunately. Because of the equivalence of inertial reference frames, the amount of all measurable variables is the same.

Another possibility, which is non abelian, is that instead of feeling the same amount of pain, you could be feeling the opposite amount of pleasure. It depends if pain (X) are fermions or bosons, that is, if their function is symmetric or anti-symmetric.

Yes, unfortunately. Because of the equivalence of inertial reference frames, the the physical alws are the same in both reference frames.

However, another possibility, which is non abelian, is that instead of feeling the same amount of pain, you could be feeling the opposite amount of pleasure. It depends if pain (X) are fermions or bosons, that is, if their function is symmetric or anti-symmetric.

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bobie
bobie
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Yes, unfortunately. Because of the equivalence of inertial referenecereference frames, the amount of all measurabel veriablesmeasurable variables is the same. Or another

Another possibility, which is non abelian, is that instead of feeling the same amount of pain, you could be feeling the opposite amount of pleassurepleasure. It depends if pain (X) are fermions or bosons, that is, if their function is symmetric or anti-symmetric.

Yes, unfortunately. Because of the equivalence of inertial referenece frames, the amount of all measurabel veriables is the same. Or another possibility which is non abelian, is that instead of feeling the same amount of pain you could be feeling the opposite amount of pleassure. It depends if pain (X) are fermions or bosons, that is, if their function is symmetric or anti-symmetric.

Yes, unfortunately. Because of the equivalence of inertial reference frames, the amount of all measurable variables is the same.

Another possibility, which is non abelian, is that instead of feeling the same amount of pain, you could be feeling the opposite amount of pleasure. It depends if pain (X) are fermions or bosons, that is, if their function is symmetric or anti-symmetric.

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user65081
user65081