Timeline for Problem in deducing the equations of motion using indefinite integral
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 20, 2014 at 7:22 | comment | added | jens_bo | It's all good. At the end of the day it improved the answer. :) | |
| Nov 20, 2014 at 7:17 | comment | added | user65081 | yes, I apologize, but I just realized that in my last comment, before that I thought that you really meant that. | |
| Nov 20, 2014 at 7:14 | comment | added | jens_bo | Thanks, I changed it. I thought, that it was clear after the first sentence and the thought process is what I was focusing on. No offense, but your last comment sounds like you could have saved us a bunch of comments by just writing this last sentence from the beginning instead of beating around the bush. | |
| Nov 20, 2014 at 7:05 | history | edited | jens_bo | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 161 characters in body
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| Nov 20, 2014 at 7:03 | comment | added | user65081 | I agree, I just pointed out that you contradicted yourself, perhaps you should change the text a little bit. Or did you mean that "C can not have any value, but needs to be f0" only for that example? | |
| Nov 20, 2014 at 7:01 | comment | added | jens_bo | $C$ depends on the initial conditions and of course on the function. So you always need to find the right $C$ for your problem. | |
| Nov 20, 2014 at 6:59 | comment | added | user65081 | but you said before that "C can not have any value, but needs to be $f_0$". And now it can be $f_0+1$? | |
| Nov 20, 2014 at 6:56 | comment | added | jens_bo | the integral is $-cos(x)$, so that $f(0)=-1+C=f_0$ and thus $C=f_0+1$ | |
| Nov 20, 2014 at 6:53 | history | edited | jens_bo | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 473 characters in body
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| Nov 20, 2014 at 6:52 | comment | added | user65081 | How does your argument work if F(x)=sin(x) ? | |
| Nov 20, 2014 at 6:44 | history | answered | jens_bo | CC BY-SA 3.0 |