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Sep 6, 2019 at 16:18 comment added guillefix As $r_1$ isn't changing anyways, you are right. But, I just wanted to make explicit the fact that $r_1$ is fixed when taking the time derivative, which I think is standard.
Sep 6, 2019 at 15:29 comment added verdelite I have double-checked every step of this answer. It seems alright. The only thing is I feel like \frac{\partial}{\partial t} may better be \frac{d}{d t}.
Nov 7, 2014 at 22:58 vote accept guillefix
Nov 7, 2014 at 22:52 history answered guillefix CC BY-SA 3.0