Timeline for Why are infinite order Lagrangians called 'non-local'?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 26, 2019 at 7:12 | answer | added | Vladimir Kalitvianski | timeline score: 4 | |
| Nov 21, 2017 at 13:24 | answer | added | BoGGoG | timeline score: 6 | |
| May 10, 2017 at 19:01 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jun 25, 2014 at 20:16 | comment | added | Qmechanic♦ | @WIMP: Please provide reference to support the claim in the title (v3). | |
| May 23, 2014 at 17:38 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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| May 13, 2012 at 14:31 | answer | added | Arnold Neumaier | timeline score: 30 | |
| May 8, 2012 at 14:10 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
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| Aug 21, 2011 at 6:40 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackPhysics/status/105167400542015488 | ||
| Aug 21, 2011 at 5:47 | vote | accept | WIMP | ||
| Aug 21, 2011 at 5:42 | comment | added | WIMP | Marek: But that's exactly my question. I've repeatedly encountered referral to theories with higher order Lagrangians (I mean higher order in derivatives) as 'non-local' despite these not actually having a 'non-local' interaction of the type you are referring to. So what do they mean? | |
| Aug 16, 2011 at 23:08 | answer | added | Bill K | timeline score: 10 | |
| Aug 16, 2011 at 14:01 | answer | added | Daniel Grumiller | timeline score: 52 | |
| Aug 16, 2011 at 8:30 | comment | added | Marek | Higher order in what? Both higher powers of fields and higher powers of derivatives are not non-local. Non-locality always means interaction between fields at points separated by some distance (instead of at a single point). This can be introduced e.g. by non-polynomial functions in the Lagrangian but I am not sure what your higher-order means. In any case, you should spend some effort on making the question precise. | |
| Aug 16, 2011 at 7:50 | history | asked | WIMP | CC BY-SA 3.0 |