Timeline for Can an object accelerate to infinite speed in a finite time-interval in non-relativistic Newtonian mechanics?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| Aug 6, 2011 at 22:45 | comment | added | Alan Rominger | @genneth That's fair. I would just add that the case of two passing charges fully satisfies the requirement of delivering the rate of power specified, that being the $1/t^3$ form I gave. It's interesting to put things in these terms, because it shows that no answer can really be "right". Since it's a made-up world, quantum mechanics could prohibit the flyby that leads to infinite velocity... or it could not. | |
| Aug 6, 2011 at 16:01 | comment | added | genneth | Downvoted because it's too limited in imagination --- as the top comment makes clear. There seems to be a great deal of "classical" work that people are in the dark about. You've done a great job of explaining a particular situation, but clearly failed to account for the full general case. | |
| Aug 5, 2011 at 12:49 | comment | added | Alan Rominger | Will somebody PLEASE explain the downvotes, because as far as I can tell this is a useful and thoughtful answer. If there is something that you know that I don't, of course I want to hear it. | |
| Aug 5, 2011 at 2:48 | comment | added | Alan Rominger | @Ben Edited the answer for clarity. | |
| Aug 5, 2011 at 2:47 | history | edited | Alan Rominger | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Aug 5, 2011 at 2:37 | comment | added | user4552 | "Let's start assuming a large reference frame acts on the object." What does this mean? A frame of reference is not an object that exerts forces on other objects. | |
| Aug 4, 2011 at 18:12 | history | answered | Alan Rominger | CC BY-SA 3.0 |