Timeline for Can an object accelerate to infinite speed in a finite time-interval in non-relativistic Newtonian mechanics?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 22, 2016 at 13:12 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited title
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| Dec 22, 2016 at 10:08 | history | edited | user36790 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited title
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| Feb 18, 2013 at 1:33 | answer | added | Kaleberg | timeline score: 0 | |
| Aug 7, 2011 at 3:04 | vote | accept | BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft | ||
| Aug 5, 2011 at 20:20 | comment | added | user68 | @ANKU One comment about one topic is enough. | |
| Aug 5, 2011 at 17:23 | comment | added | BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft | @ANKU: It's not meaningless - please see BebopButUnsteady's answer | |
| Aug 5, 2011 at 16:56 | comment | added | kuzand | Vector quantities like velocity etc. cannot be infinite. This is meaningless. You should reformulate your question (the title). | |
| Aug 5, 2011 at 6:20 | comment | added | kuzand | @Ben Crowell, what is infinite speed? It's nonsense... | |
| Aug 5, 2011 at 2:45 | comment | added | user4552 | The question as posed is trivial. If the force as a function of time F(t) integrates to infinity, then of course the answer is yes. | |
| Aug 4, 2011 at 21:38 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackPhysics/status/99232761818267649 | ||
| Aug 4, 2011 at 18:12 | answer | added | Alan Rominger | timeline score: 0 | |
| Aug 4, 2011 at 18:04 | answer | added | BebopButUnsteady | timeline score: 33 | |
| Aug 4, 2011 at 17:14 | answer | added | AlexPof | timeline score: 0 | |
| Aug 4, 2011 at 17:02 | history | asked | BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft | CC BY-SA 3.0 |