Timeline for If wavefunction is just a probability function, how does an electron interfere with itself?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 6, 2015 at 14:48 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| Jun 6, 2015 at 15:12 | |||||
| Jul 22, 2014 at 20:23 | comment | added | user50322 | OK. I have just one question. There is an animation here: youtube.com/watch?v=Xmq_FJd1oUQ In that animation, there is a wave for quantum object which demonstrate electron after shooting. Is that wave "wavefunction" or "probability distribution function"? | |
| Jul 22, 2014 at 16:44 | comment | added | user10851 | Interference can be viewed as otherwise unexpected ripples in the probability distribution, and it it directly caused by the fact that there are underlying complex amplitudes being added together before squaring. If all we had was the probability distribution, there would be no interference. | |
| Jul 22, 2014 at 16:38 | comment | added | user50322 | OK. So there are 2 different waves here. One of them is wavefunction itself which, as you said, describe electrons. And the other is wavefunction's square magnitude wave which gives probability distribution. Right? And interference is occurred by that wave(wavefunction's square magnitude) Right? But still I don't figure out my question's answers. 1-) Are these all true? 2-) If true, if an electron is always a particle, in double slit experiment how does an electron interfere with itself without observer, but there is no interference pattern with observer? | |
| Jul 22, 2014 at 14:35 | history | answered | user10851 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |