Timeline for If wavefunction is just a probability function, how does an electron interfere with itself?
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| Jul 22, 2014 at 17:00 | comment | added | sailx | Schrodinger eq is not about localisation... If I give you a stationnarie solution (which exist, an example isthe orbitales of atoms), you will not be able to tell me where is the electron... | |
| Jul 22, 2014 at 16:58 | comment | added | sailx | Here is the paper about this experiment : journals.aps.org/prl/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevLett.98.100403 I don't understand your point with the "double slit experiment". If there is interference pattern with the double-slit experiment, the electron is not a particule.... | |
| Jul 22, 2014 at 16:44 | comment | added | user50322 | "An electron can interfere with itself" I have never heard of any experiments other than double slit experiment. Can you please give me an example? You said: "object at the quantum level are not wave or particles" Why? I'm trying to understand that. This was why I asked this question in my first post. According to schrödinger equation, the wave function is all about probability of location. It is not real thing. So why do people keep saying that "electrons can be waves"? | |
| Jul 22, 2014 at 14:13 | history | answered | sailx | CC BY-SA 3.0 |