Timeline for Is there a unit system, where all physical laws looks nice?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
16 events
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Dec 13, 2014 at 23:20 | history | edited | user65081 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Jun 30, 2014 at 20:40 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | @jinawee: Sneaky ninja editor, you! | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 20:28 | comment | added | jinawee | @ACuriousMind Well, I was thinking of Einstein's equations. Something more "physical". | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 15:03 | comment | added | Kyle Kanos | There is no such universal "units language" as each branch of physics has a set of convenient units (Gaussian for astronomers, natural units for HEP, geometric units for geometric physics, etc) that are useful in their subfield. However, you can always use $\sim$ to ignore constants, e.g. $\mathbf F\sim q^2/r^2\hat{\mathbf r}$. | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 15:02 | answer | added | rob♦ | timeline score: 0 | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 14:50 | history | edited | user74200 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 249 characters in body
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Jun 30, 2014 at 13:58 | answer | added | ACuriousMind♦ | timeline score: 3 | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 13:54 | comment | added | user74200 | @ACuriousMind why wouldn't be? $\pi$ is a number, but what stops you from defining vector space as $X$ with isomorphism $\phi:\mathbb{R}^n\to X, \phi: x'=\pi^{-1} x$? | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 13:50 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | $\pi$ is what it is, it's a number (properly defined for example as double the first positive zero of the cosine). $\pi = 1$ is simply false. The value of $\pi$ is not tunable. | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 13:46 | comment | added | user74200 | @ACuriousMind Prove it! You don't seem to understand my question - my question is directly aiming to prove that assumptions of all constants equaling one is contradictory to $\pi=1$! | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 13:28 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | @jinawee: I would be very impressed if you could do so in a way that makes the $\pi$ in the area or circumference formulae $A = \pi r^2$ or $C = 2\pi r $ disappear (and these are often the underlying reason $\pi$ shows up in physical laws). | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 13:23 | comment | added | jinawee | @ACuriousMind Wouldn't you be able to absorb $pi$ into some constant. | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 13:02 | answer | added | Qianyi Guo | timeline score: 1 | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 12:20 | comment | added | ACuriousMind♦ | You can find out yourself: Set all constants to $1$ (except $\pi$ of course!) and see what happens. The laws are fixed, setting the constants just changes our choice of units. [Spoiler: You don't get rid of $\pi$.] | |
Jun 30, 2014 at 12:20 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ |
law of phys tag should be avoided
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Jun 30, 2014 at 12:16 | history | asked | user74200 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |