Skip to main content
10 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jul 13, 2011 at 8:55 comment added shark.dp Okay, I got it. Thanks for pointing out the difference. But for the "classical" outcome of the experiment, it would mean that the atoms where uniformly distributed on the screen, because the deflection is proportional to $J_z$.
Jul 12, 2011 at 15:19 comment added David Bar Moshe No, he is correct. $\theta$ isn't uniformly distributed with respect to the surface elements of the sphere, but $J_z$ which is proportional to $cos(\theta)$ is uniformly distributed. You can verify that according to the random variable distribution transformation law: $p_{J_z}= \frac{p_{\theta}}{|\frac{d(J_z)}{d\theta}|}$, where $p$ denotes the distribution density
Jul 12, 2011 at 15:07 comment added shark.dp One more remark: it is interesting to see that Otto Stern probably did exactly the same mistake as me: See springerlink.com/content/wm65pq5t22706x62/fulltext.pdf, page 252. He writes: "Nun ist die Anzahl der Atome, für die $\theta$ einen bestimmten Wert hat, proportional $\sin(\theta)$". Translated: "The number of atoms for which $\theta$ has a certain value is proportional to $\sin(\theta)$".
Jul 12, 2011 at 12:33 comment added shark.dp Trying to compute this on my own, I found a much simpler derivation for this surface: With $z = R \cos(\theta)$ one can do the integration in spherical coordinates: $A = R \int_0^{2\pi} \text{d} \phi \int_{\arccos(a/R)}^{\arccos(b/R)} \text{d} \theta \sin(\theta)$ $=$ $2 \pi R \int_a^b \text{d} \left(\cos(\theta)\right) = 2 \pi R (b-a)$. Thanks again!
Jul 12, 2011 at 12:18 vote accept shark.dp
Jul 12, 2011 at 12:18 comment added shark.dp Okay, this came really surprising for me. I didn't expect this. Thanks for the hint and the URL. I would upvote you're answer, if I were allowed to ;-)
Jul 12, 2011 at 12:10 comment added David Bar Moshe Please see the derivation in: mathworld.wolfram.com/Zone.html
Jul 12, 2011 at 12:04 comment added shark.dp Thanks for the detailed answer. I fully agree on the quantum mechanical part. But I don't understand the reasoning for the classical counterpart: shouldn't the R in the formular for S be the "in-plane" radius (distance from the z-axis, not from the origin)? $S = 2\pi \times \sin(\theta) h$?
Jul 12, 2011 at 11:37 history edited David Bar Moshe CC BY-SA 3.0
added 35 characters in body
Jul 12, 2011 at 11:30 history answered David Bar Moshe CC BY-SA 3.0